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May 18, 2008

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Ryan Kennedy

I ran across this post and thought that it might need some clarification. While the author is correct about the effect of a 1% change, she misinterprets how 1% is entered into the equation. In the log independent variable, a 1% change is entered into the equation as .01. Therefore, as Gujarati (1995, p. 172 (I know old edition)) states in the indented text, "[W]hen regressions like (6.5.11) are estimated by OLS, multiply the value of the estimated slope coefficient, B2, by .01, or, what amounts to the same thing, divide it by 100." So, in the example above, the proper interpretation is that a 1% change in X will result in a .0109129% change in the dependent variable. I know there is a lot of confusion about this, and this is the first link that comes up from google, so I thought this might be helpful.

Julie

Thanks for the note. I did mistake 0.01 for 1. However, I think the intrepretation may be slightly different than what was stated.

The left hand side of the equation (changed in Y) represents a numeric change, not a percentage change. Hence, I think the correct interpretation should be:

A 1% changed in x causes a 0.0109129 change in y. (Not a % change in Y)

Does this seem correct?

Sergio Giaccaria

Could we consider the same interpretation also for a negative binomial regression with logged x?
Thank You

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